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الموضوع: نماذج أسئلة للصيادلة.

  1. #1
    تاريخ التسجيل
    Dec 2007
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    فلسطين48
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    نماذج أسئلة للصيادلة.

    Antihypertensive Practice Exam II
    This is a self-grading exam. Answers are entered by clicking the button corresponding to your selection. The examination is scored by clicking 'Grade Test' at the bottom of the form. Correct answers are found through hyperlinks at the bottom of the page.


    Question # 1 (True/False) Increased preload usually leads to increased contractility:
    A) true
    B) false
    Question # 2 (True/False) Heart rate X Stroke Volume = cardiac output
    A) true
    B) false
    Question # 3 (Multiple Choice) Effect of concurrent administration of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents on antihypertensive properties of beta-blockers:
    A) enhanced antihypertensive effect
    B) diminished antihypertensive effect
    C) no effect
    Question # 4 (Multiple Answer) Major classes of diuretics used in hypertension management:
    A) loop diuretics
    B) osmotic diuretics
    C) potassium sparing diuretics
    D) thiazides
    E) carbonic anhydrase inhibitor's
    Question # 5 (Multiple Answer) Possible antihypertensive effects:
    A) increased peripheral resistance
    B) decreased afterload
    C) increased preload
    D) decrease contractility
    E) all of the above
    Question # 6 (Multiple Answer) Examples of selective beta1 adrenergic receptor blockers:
    A) propranolol (Inderal)
    B) metoprolol (Lopressor)
    C) atenolol (Tenormin)
    D) acebutalol
    E) albuterol (Ventolin,Proventil)
    Question # 7 (Multiple Answer) Administration of anesthesia to patients treated with antihypertensive drugs
    A) increased likelihood of orthostatic hypotension
    B) reduced systemic blood-pressure responses to acute blood loss
    C) reduced systemic blood-pressure responses to body position changes
    D) altered physiological response to sympathomimetic drugs
    Question # 8 (Multiple Choice) Effect on renin levels of beta adrenergic receptor blockers:
    A) increased
    B) decreased
    Question # 9 (Multiple Answer) Neurogenic causes of systolic and diastolic hypertension:
    A) polyneuritis
    B) elevated intracranial pressure
    C) familial dysautonomia
    D) polyarteritis nodosa
    E) pheochromocytoma
    Question # 10 (Multiple Answer) Hypertension of unknown etiology-- causes:
    A) toxemia of pregnancy
    B) acute intermittent porphyria
    C) essential hypertension
    Question # 11 (Multiple Answer) Antihypertensive drugs classified as "adrenergic neuron blockers":
    A) clonidine (Catapres)
    B) guanethidine (Ismelin)
    C) guanadrel (Hylorel) and
    D) reserpine
    E) guanabenz (Wytensin)
    Question # 12 (Multiple Answer) Selective blockers of alpha1 adrenergic receptors:
    A) propranolol (Inderal)
    B) phentolamine (Regitine)
    C) prazosin (Minipress)
    D) atropine
    E) neostigmine (Prostigmin)
    Question # 13 (True/False) Cardiac Output X Peripheral Resistance = Arterial Pressure
    A) true
    B) false
    Question # 14 (Multiple Choice) Heart block with intermittent conduction; increasingly prolonged PR interval; QRS < 0.12 seconds; QRS dropped in a repeating pattern
    A) first degree heart block
    B) second-degree heart block -- Mobitz type I
    C) second-degree heart block-Mobitz type II
    D) third degree heart block
    Question # 15 (Multiple Answer) Side effects associated with ganglionic blocking drugs:
    A) bladder dysfunction
    B) xerostromia
    C) paralytic ileus
    D) blurred vision
    Question # 16 (Multiple Answer) Endocrine causes of systolic and diastolic hypertension:
    A) polyneuritis
    B) hypercalcemia
    C) primary hyperaldosteronism
    D) acromegaly
    E) myxedema
    Question # 17 (Multiple Choice) Principal thiazide site of action:
    A) late distal tubule and collecting duct
    B) distal convoluted tubule
    C) loop of Henle
    Question # 18 (Multiple Answer) Clinical conditions that increase stroke volume and which may cause systolic hypertension:
    A) thyrotoxicosis
    B) fever
    C) aortic regurgitation
    Question # 19 (Multiple Choice) Ganglionic blockers might be used in this condition because they reduce arterial blood pressure and the upslope of the aortic pressure wave:
    A) renal vascular stenosis
    B) polyarteritis nodosa
    C) dissecting aortic aneurysm
    D) intermittent claudication
    E) coronary insufficiency
    Question # 20 (Multiple Answer) Adverse effects of guanethidine (Ismelin) and guanadrel (Hylorel):
    A) symptomatic hypertension
    B) sexual dysfunction in males
    C) diarrhea
    Question # 21 (Multiple Answer) Intrinsic sympathomimetic activity:
    A) metoprolol (Lopressor)
    B) pindolol (Visken)
    C) acebutolol (Sectral)
    D) propranolol (Inderal)
    Question # 22 (Multiple Answer) Maintenance of antihypertensive drug treatment during the perioperative period
    A) Previously effective antihypertensive drug therapy should be continued during the perioperative phase
    B) The pharmacology of the particular antihypertensive drug should be considered in the development of the anesthesia plan
    Question # 23 (Multiple Answer) More likely to cause bronchospasm and mask hypoglycemia:
    A) metoprolol (Lopressor)
    B) atenolol (Tenormin)
    C) timolol (Blocadren)
    D) pindolol (Visken)
    Question # 24 (Multiple Answer) Concerning the baroreflex:
    A) baroreceptor input goes to the tractus solitarius of medulla
    B) excitation of the vagal centers is induced
    C) negative inotropism results
    D) positive chronotropism occurs
    Question # 25 (Multiple Choice) Glucose intolerance and long-term antihypertensive beta-blocker treatment--
    A) more likely to develop
    B) less likely to develop
    C) unrelated
    Question # 26 (Multiple Answer) Adverse effects associated with beta-adrenergic receptor blockers:
    A) bradycardia
    B) bronchospasm
    C) masking of hypoglycemia
    D) impotence
    E) sedation
    Question # 27 (Multiple Answer) Centrally-acting sympatholytics:
    A) nitroprusside sodium (Nipride)
    B) guanabenz (Wytensin)
    C) clonidine (Catapres)
    D) methyldopa (Aldomet)
    E) guanethidine (Ismelin)
    Question # 28 (Multiple Choice) Effect on angiotensin II levels of beta adrenergic receptor blockers:
    A) increased
    B) decreased
    Question # 29 (Multiple Answer) Thiazide diuretics:
    A) The initial blood-pressure reduction is due to a decrease in cardiac output and extracellular volume
    B) Long-term hypertensive effects of thiazides is due to reduced myocardial contractility
    C) Site of action -- ascending loop of Henle
    D) are potassium-sparing
    Question # 30 (Multiple Choice) Cardioselective beta-blockers bind to this receptor subtype:
    A) beta1
    B) beta2
    Question # 31 (Multiple Choice) Effect(s) of beta adrenergic blockers on blood lipids:
    A) decreased blood triglyceride levels
    B) increased levels of HDL cholesterol
    C) both
    D) neither
    1
    Physiological properties of nitrates:




    cause vasodilation by releasing potassium which activates guanylyl cyclase



    primarily cause venular smooth muscle relaxation



    act primarily through dilation of coronary arteries



    increased myocardial preloaded



    increased myocardial wall tension
    2
    Antianginal agent most likely to cause methemoglobinemia:




    isosorbide dinitrate (Isordil, Sorbitrate)



    propranolol (Inderal)



    nitroglycerin



    amyl nitrite



    metoprolol (Lopressor)
    3
    Vasodilation by direct action on vascular smooth muscle




    minoxidil (Loniten)



    hydralazine (Apresoline)



    nitroglycerin



    all the above
    4
    Effective in management of variant (Prinzmetal's) angina:




    propranolol (Inderal)



    nitroglycerin



    diltiazem (Cardiazem)



    A & C



    B & C
    5
    Antianginal agents administered by inhalation:




    nitroglycerin



    phentolamine (Regitine)



    amyl nitrite



    metoprolol (Lopressor)



    captopril (Capoten)
    6
    Calcium channel blocker -- most effective vasodilator:




    verapamil (Isoptin, Calan)



    nifedipine (Procardia, Adalat)



    nicardipine (Cardene)



    diltiazem (Cardiazem)



    nimodipine (Nimotop)
    7
    Antianginal agent which decreases myocardial contractility (negative inotropism)




    amrinone (Inocor)



    nitroglycerin



    amyl nitrite



    metoprolol (Lopressor)



    phentolamine (Regitine)
    8
    Calcium channel blocker most likely to decrease contractility, reduce sinoatrial nodal impulse generation, and slow AV nodal conduction.




    diltiazem (Cardiazem)



    nicardipine (Cardene)



    nifedipine (Procardia, Adalat)



    nimodipine (Nimotop)



    verapamil (Isoptin, Calan)
    9
    Blocks tachycardia resulting from nitroglycerin administration




    atropine



    phenoxybenzamine (Dibenzyline)



    propranolol (Inderal)
    10
    Side effect least likely to be seen with nitroglycerin:




    hypertension



    headache



    dizziness



    palpitations

    Antihypertensive Practice Exam III
    This is a self-grading exam. Answers are entered by clicking the button corresponding to your selection. The examination is scored by clicking 'Grade Test' at the bottom of the form. Correct answers are found through hyperlinks at the bottom of the page.


    أعلى النموذج

    Question # 1 (Multiple Answer) Advantages of oral clonidine (Catapres) (preanesthetic medication):
    A) enhances intrathecal morphine plus tetracaine postoperative analgesia
    B) decreases inhaled anesthetic requirement
    C) decreases injected and esthetic requirement
    D) reduces reflex tachycardia caused by direct laryngoscopy for tracheal intubation
    E) increases plasma catecholamines; helps to maintain BP

    Question # 2 (Multiple Choice) Acts as a competitive antagonist in both alpha1 and beta1 adrenergic receptors; has intrinsic sympathomimetic effect at beta2 adrenergic receptors:
    A) clonidine (Catapres)
    B) metoprolol (Lopressor)
    C) acebutolol (Sectral)
    D) labetalol (Trandate, Normodyne)
    E) atenolol (Tenormin)

    Question # 3 (Multiple Choice) Vasodilator which produces methemoglobin in the body
    A) hydralazine (Apresoline)
    B) minoxidil (Loniten)
    C) nitroprusside sodium (Nipride)

    Question # 4 (Multiple Answer) Adverse effects associated with ACE inhibitors:
    A) angioedema
    B) dry cough
    C) rhinorrhea
    D) proteinuria

    Question # 5 (Multiple Choice) Management of excessive hypotensive reaction probably caused by continued ACE inhibitor treatment perioperatively:
    A) crystalloid fluid infusion
    B) sympathomimetic administration
    C) both
    D) neither

    Question # 6 (Multiple Answer) Side effects associated with clonidine use as analgesic:
    A) respiratory depression
    B) nausea
    C) vomiting
    D) delayed gastric emptying
    E) none of the above

    Question # 7 (Multiple Choice) Hydralazine (Apresoline) and minoxidil (Loniten), administered as monotherapy, might be expected to produce:
    A) water retention
    B) cardiac stimulation (reflex-mediated)
    C) both
    D) neither

    Question # 8 (Multiple Choice) Mechanism of antihypertensive action: clonidine (Catapres) --
    A) peripheral alpha1 adrenergic receptor blocker
    B) peripheral beta2 adrenergic receptor agonist
    C) central alpha2 adrenergic agonist
    D) central beta-adrenergic agonist

    Question # 9 (Multiple Choice) Antihypertensive drug: hypertrichosis
    A) methyldopa (Aldomet)
    B) clonidine (Catapres)
    C) diltiazem (Cardiazem)
    D) minoxidil (Loniten)
    E) propranolol (Inderal)

    Question # 10 (Multiple Answer) Adverse effects of furosemide (Lasix):
    A) gout
    B) potassium depletion
    C) ototoxicity

    Question # 11 (Multiple Choice) Vasodilator identified as especially effective in managing severe hypertension associated with renovascular disease, transplant rejection, renal failure
    A) hydralazine (Apresoline)
    B) nitroprusside sodium (Nipride)
    C) minoxidil (Loniten)

    Question # 12 (Multiple Answer) Adverse effects associated with hydralazine (Apresoline) (given alone):
    A) palpitations
    B) fluid retention
    C) angina
    D) headache
    E) hypotension

    Question # 13 (True/False) Clonidine can be used for dose-dependent analgesia (epidural)
    A) true
    B) false

    Question # 14 (Multiple Answer) ACE inhibitors:first line treatment for patients with --
    A) systemic hypertension
    B) mitral regurgitation
    C) congestive heart failure

    Question # 15 (Multiple Answer) Clinical uses: nitroprusside sodium (Nipride)
    A) controlled hypotension during anesthesia and surgery
    B) controlled hypotension during surgery -- likely to ensure adequate cerebral perfusion
    C) acute & chronic heart failure
    D) hypertensive emergencies
    E) aortic surgery; reduction of proximal hypertension associated with aortic cross-clamping

    Question # 16 (Multiple Choice) Vasodilation:hydralazine (Apresoline) --
    A) more pronounced effect on arterioles
    B) more pronounced effect on venules
    C) equal effect on arterioles and renewals

    Question # 17 (Multiple Choice) Relaxes both arterial and venous vascular smooth muscle
    A) hydralazine (Apresoline)
    B) nitroprusside sodium (Nipride)
    C) minoxidil (Loniten)

    Question # 18 (Multiple Choice) Direct acting, nonselective peripheral vasodilator; 44% cyanide by weight
    A) minoxidil (Loniten)
    B) hydralazine (Apresoline)
    C) nitroprusside sodium (Nipride)

    Question # 19 (Multiple Choice) Class of antihypertensive drugs particularly useful for management of low-renin hypertension:-- monotherapy
    A) ACE inhibitors
    B) loop diuretics
    C) calcium channel blockers

    Question # 20 (Multiple Answer) Examples of loop diuretics:
    A) mannitol (Osmitrol)
    B) bumetanide (Bumex)
    C) flecainide (Tambocor)
    D) triamterene (Dyrenium)
    E) spironolactone (Aldactone)

    Question # 21 (Multiple Answer) Antihypertensive vasodilators which would be most readily used for chronic treatment:
    A) nitroprusside sodium (Nipride)
    B) minoxidil (Loniten)
    C) hydralazine (Apresoline)

    2
    Some asthmatic patients exhibit aspirin sensitivity (and sensitivity to other NSAIDS). Daily administration of aspirin causes desensitization not only to aspirin also to other NSAIDS. This phenomenon is:




    the placebo effect



    cross-tolerance



    efficacy



    potency
    3
    A thirty-eight year old asthmatic who has been using beta adrenergic agonists for several years began to experience arrhythmias, premature atrial contractions. In order to suppress the arrhythmias, high-dose metoprolol therapy was started. Suggest a likely consequence:




    The cardioselective beta-blocker, metoprolol, alleviated the arrhythmia and did not affect the patient's asthma symptoms



    Since metoprolol is a beta agonist, the patient's arrhythmias worsened, but symptoms of asthma improved.



    The expiratory component of the patient's flow/volume curve was shortened.



    Metoprolol increased airway obstruction, worsening the patient's asthma, but improved the cardiac rhythm disorder.
    4
    Anti-asthma agent that acts in part by activating pulmonary beta-receptors thus increasing cAMP




    ipratropium



    terbutaline



    cromolyn



    methoxamine
    5
    An asthmatic is prescribed an adrenergic agent. After administration, the drug makes the patient tachycardiac and nervous. This drug was probably:




    albuterol



    isoproterenol



    terbutaline



    A & C
    6
    V/Q (ventilation/perfusion) mismatching which occurs in severe asthma results in hypoxemia. Terbutaline inhalation inproves the V/Q ratio. Why?




    Increased cardiac output increases pulmonary artery perfusion pressure in the lung



    Pulmonary vasodilation improves V/Q mismatching



    Bronchiolar relaxation improves ventilation.



    Actually, it is the use of supplimental oxygen that is more important than terbutaline.
    7
    Correct drug:property combination




    theophylline: hepatic oxidation and demethylation



    albuterol: beta2 adrenergic blocker



    ipratropium bromide: well-absorbed quaternary anticholinergic; associated with dry mouth



    Beclomethasone: enhances release of chemical mediators of bronchospasm which diminishes effectiveness of beta-2 adrenergic agonists.
    8
    Corticosteroids and the treatment of asthma:




    Corticosteroids relax smooth muscle



    Corticosteroids inhibit the inflammatory response.



    Corticosteroids reduce patient responsiveness to beta agonists



    In acute asthma, corticosteroids increase airway obstruction; therefore corticosteroids should only be used for chronic treatment.
    9
    Phosphodiesterase-inhibitor used in asthma therapy:




    ipratropium bromide



    aminophylline



    metaproterenol



    cyclosporine
    10
    Prophylactic antiasthmatic drug probably acts by preventing release of bronchoconstrictive mediators from mast cells:




    beclomethasone



    cromolyn



    metaproterenol



    albuterol

    Congestive Heart Failure: Practice Exam 1Click on the correct answer.
    أعلى النموذج

    1
    Potassium sparing diuretic:




    furosemide (Lasix)



    triamterene (Dyrenium)



    chlorothiazide (Diuril)



    mannitol (Osmitrol)



    torsemide (Demadex)
    2
    Increased urinary output in a congestive heart failure patient who has been started on digoxin (Lanoxin, Lanoxicaps) is most likely due to:




    renovascular dilatation



    increased renal perfusion



    decreased post glomerular arteriolar tone



    a direct effect on renal sodium transport



    a decrease in vagal tone to the kidney
    3
    Potassium sparing diuretic:




    chlorothiazide (Diuril)



    bumetanide (Bumex)



    amiloride (Midamor)



    mannitol (Osmitrol)



    furosemide (Lasix)
    4
    Primarily an arterial vasodilator that may be useful in management of congestive heart failure:




    isosorbide dinitrate (Isordil, Sorbitrate)



    minoxidil (Loniten)



    lisinopril (Prinvivil, Zestril)
    5
    Digitalis-induced bradycardia in the normal heart is due to:




    decreased conduction through the AV node



    increased vagal tone



    increased sympathetic tone



    decrease in fluid load



    peripheral vasodilation
    6
    Digitalis-effect on vascular resistance in congestive heart failure patients:




    vascular resistance increases



    vascular resistance decreases
    7
    Digitalis-induced diuresis in edematous patients is mainly due to:




    renal vasodilation



    increased post-glomerular arteriolar tone



    increased cardiac output



    decreased heart rate



    blockade of the sodium-potassium transporter
    8
    Drug interaction that may reduce digitalis absorption:




    quinidine gluconate (Quinaglute, Quinalan)



    cholestyramine (Questran, Questran Light)



    norepinephrine
    9
    An example of a positive inotropic drug that acts by inhibiting myocardial phosphodiesterase.




    triamcinolone (Aristocort)



    amrinone (Inocor)



    ouabain



    tranylcypromine (Parnate)



    dopamine (Intropin)
    10
    Cardiac effects of. digoxin (Lanoxin, Lanoxicaps) include:




    increased heart rate



    increased automaticity



    decreased velocity of contraction



    increased conduction through the AV node



    decreased cardiac output
    11
    Angiotensin II receptor antagonist:




    captopril (Capoten)



    isosorbide dinitrate (Isordil, Sorbitrate)



    losartin (Cozaar)



    nitroprusside sodium (Nipride)



    hydralazine (Apresoline)
    12
    Calcium channel blocker with marked negative inotropic cardiac effects:




    nifedipine (Procardia, Adalat)



    diltiazem (Cardiazem)



    amlodipine (Norvasc)



    amrinone (Inocor)



    labetalol (Trandate, Normodyne)
    13
    Positive inotropic agent that not only stimulates beta-1, beta-2, alpha-1, alpha-2 receptors but also acts as a vasodilator to reduce aortic impedance (afterload).




    isoproterenol (Isuprel)



    norepinephrine



    dopamine (Intropin)



    dobutamine (Dobutrex)



    phenylephrine (Neo-Synephrine)
    14
    Loop diuretic useful both in acute and chronic management of congestive heart failure:




    chlordiazepoxide (Librium)



    chlorthalidone (Hygroton)



    bumetanide (Bumex)



    ethacrynic acid (Edecrin)



    spironolactone (Aldactone)
    15
    Digoxin (Lanoxin, Lanoxicaps) clinical uses:




    atrial fibrillation



    atrial flutter



    congestive heart failure



    A & C



    A, B & C
    16
    Useful in treating arrhythmias associated with digitalis toxicity:




    lidocaine (Xylocaine)



    potassium



    both



    neither
    17
    Effects of digitalis glycosides on the heart include:




    increased conduction velocity through the AV node



    decreased refractory period of the AV node



    positive inotropic effects



    positive chronotropic effects



    A & C
    18
    Positive inotropic drug are not classified as a cardiac glycoside:




    metoprolol (Lopressor)



    prazosin (Minipress)



    amrinone (Inocor)



    methacholine (Provocholine)



    quinidine gluconate (Quinaglute, Quinalan)

    أسفل النموذج


    1. Most common complication insulin therapy:

    A. ? lipodystrophies
    B. ? hypotension
    C. ? gallstones
    D. ? hypoglycemia
    E. ? retinopathy

    2. Effects associated with insulin- induced hypoglycemia:

    A. ? tachycardia
    B. ? palpitations
    C. ? nausea
    D. ? sweating
    E. ? all of the above

    3. Effective in the immediate management of the comatose, hypoglycemic patient.

    A. ? have the patient drink orange juice
    B. ? provide IV infusion of 50% glucose solution
    C. ? glucagon injection -- subcutaneous or intramuscular
    D. ? B & C
    E. ? A,B & C

    4. Causes of hypoglycemia in a diabetic patient:

    A. ? insulin overdosage
    B. ? delay in eating (later than normal)
    C. ? unusual physical activity
    D. ? A & B
    E. ? A,B & C

    5. Blockade of signs of diabetic hypoglycemia:

    A. ? diabetic neuropathy
    B. ? metoprolol (Lopressor)
    C. ? propranolol (Inderal)
    D. ? B & C
    E. ? A, B & C

    6. Insulin allergy:

    A. ? immediate response is IgG mediated
    B. ? anaphylaxis may result
    C. ? change in insulin species(e.g. from pure pork or human from beef)
    D. ? B & C
    E. ? A, B & C

    7. Biguanide-- oral hypoglycemic drug:

    A. ? Tolbutamide (Orinase)
    B. ? acarbose (Precose)
    C. ? metformin (Glucophage)
    D. ? troglitazone (Rezulin)
    E. ? none of the above

    8. Proposed mechanism(s) for hypoglycemic action of sulfonylureas:

    A. ? enhancement of insulin release from pancreatic beta cells
    B. ? increase of serum glucagon levels
    C. ? potentiation of insulin effects at target tissues
    D. ? A & B
    E. ? A & C

    9. Sulfonylurea hypoglycemic drug:receptor sites

    A. ? muscarinic receptor
    B. ? calcium channel
    C. ? potassium channel
    D. ? beta adrenergic receptor
    E. ? alpha adrenergic receptor

    10. Inhibitors of insulin release:

    A. ? somatostatin
    B. ? diazoxide (Hyperstat)
    C. ? phenytoin (Dilantin)
    D. ? vinblastine (Velban)
    E. ? all of the above

    11. Second generation sulfonylurea:

    A. ? chlorpropamide (Diabinese)
    B. ? tolazamide (Tolinase)
    C. ? acetohexamide
    D. ? glipizide (Glucotrol)
    E. ? Tolbutamide (Orinase)

    12. Second-generation sulfonylurea approved for once-daily use as monotherapy in management of Type II diabetes:

    A. ? chlorpropamide (Diabinese)
    B. ? glyburide (Micronase, DiaBeta)
    C. ? glipizide (Glucotrol)
    D. ? glimepiride (Amaryl)
    E. ? metformin (Glucophage)

    13. Oral hypoglycemic agent most likely to be prescribed for patients with refractory obesity and who exhibit insulin resistance syndrome: in

    A. ? acetohexamide
    B. ? chlorpropamide (Diabinese)
    C. ? glyburide (Micronase, DiaBeta)
    D. ? metformin (Glucophage)
    E. ? Tolbutamide (Orinase)

    14. Aldose reductase inhibitor:

    A. ? metformin (Glucophage)
    B. ? acetazolamide (Diamox)
    C. ? Tolbutamide (Orinase)
    D. ? acarbose (Precose)
    E. ? troglitazone (Rezulin)

    15. Cardiac effects of glucagon:

    A. ? positive inotropic; positive chronotropic
    B. ? negative inotropic negative chronotropic

    16. Immediate pharmacologic/metabolic consequence of glucagon infusion:

    A. ? increase hepatic glycogen; decrease blood glucose
    B. ? decrease blood glucose; decrease stored hepatic glycogen
    C. ? increased blood glucose; decreased hepatic glycogen
    D. ? decreased blood glucose; increase stored hepatic glycogen
    E. ? none of the above

    17. Glucagon effect(s)-- at pharmacologic doses:

    A. ? promote insulin release from normal pancreatic B cells
    B. ? promote catecholamine release from pheochromocytoma
    C. ? promote calcitonin release from medullary carcinoma cells
    D. ? A & B
    E. ? A, B & C

    18. Following very significant alpha and beta-adrenergic blocker overdosage; most likely to promote increased inotropic and chronotropic cardiac response

    A. ? isoproterenol (Isuprel)
    B. ? phenylephrine (Neo-Synephrine)
    C. ? glucagon
    D. ? mecamylamine (Inversine)
    E. ? none of the above would be effective

    Exam 1 Coagulation
    This is a self-grading exam. Answers are entered by clicking the button corresponding to your selection. The examination is scored by clicking 'Grade Test' at the bottom of the form. Correct answers are found through hyperlinks at the bottom of the page.


    أعلى النموذج

    Question # 1 (Multiple Answer) Excessive anticoagulant effect in bleeding due to warfarin can be reversed by:
    A) stopping the drug
    B) large doses of vitamin K
    C) factor IX concentrates
    D) cholestyramine
    E) diuretics

    Question # 2 (Multiple Answer) Protease inhibitor(s) that inactivators coagulation proteins escaping from sites of vessel injury:
    A) alpha2-macroglobulin
    B) alpha2-antiplasmin
    C) antithrombin III
    D) alpha1 antiprotease
    E) streptokinase

    Question # 3 (Multiple Choice) Cutaneous necrosis was reduced protein C activity occurs during the first weeks of therapy with:
    A) streptokinase
    B) abciximab
    C) warfarin
    D) ticlopidine
    E) aspirin

    Question # 4 (Multiple Answer) Coagulation Factor(s) targets of heparin:
    A) fibrinogen
    B) proaccelerin
    C) prothrombin
    D) Christmas factor
    E) antihemophilic globulin (AHG)

    Question # 5 (Multiple Choice) Thrombus type most likely to be formed in low pressure veins
    A) white thrombus
    B) red thrombus

    Question # 6 (True/False) Warfarin crosses the placental barrier:
    A) true
    B) false

    Question # 7 (Multiple Choice) Synonym for factor VII:
    A) proaccelerin
    B) prothrombin
    C) proconvertin
    D) Christmas factor
    E) Fibrin-stabilizing factor

    Question # 8 (Multiple Answer) Fibrolytic drugs:
    A) streptokinase
    B) alteplase
    C) reteplase
    D) urokinase
    E) cyclooxygenase

    Question # 9 (Multiple Choice) Immediate hemostatic responds to the damage vessel:
    A) platelet adhesion
    B) platelet aggregation
    C) platelet viscous metamorphosis
    D) vasospasm
    E) white thrombus formation

    Question # 10 (Multiple Answer) Coumarin anticoagulants resulted in biologically inactive forms of:
    A) factor VII
    B) factor IX
    C) factor X
    D) anticoagulant protein C
    E) anticoagulant protein S

    Question # 11 (Multiple Answer) Increases prothrombin time:
    A) cimetadine
    B) metronidazole
    C) trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
    D) fluconazole
    E) disulfram

    Question # 12 (Multiple Choice) Mouse/human chimeric monoclonal antibody -- blocks IIb/IIIb platelet receptor
    A) ticlopidine
    B) timolol
    C) abciximab
    D) eicosapentaenoic acid
    E) streptokinase
    أسفل النموذج


    1
    Second generation sulfonylurea antidiabetic drug:




    chlorpropamide (Diabinese)



    Tolbutamide (Orinase)



    glipizide (Glucotrol)



    A & C



    A, B & C
    2
    Clinically use(s) for glucagon:




    management of severe hyperglycemia



    beta adrenergic receptor poisoning



    diagnostic uses



    B & C



    A & C
    3
    Major manifestations of diabetes:




    metabolic disorders



    inappropriate hyperglycemia



    both



    neither
    4
    Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus:




    Type I



    Type II
    5
    Characteristics of Type I diabetes:




    typically adult onset



    low plasma glucagon



    insulin nearly absent



    pancreatic B cell is responsive to insulinogenic stimuli
    6
    In a patient with Type I diabetes, exogenous insulin is required to:




    prevent ketosis



    reverse hypoglucagonemia



    reverses catabolic state



    A & C



    A, B & C
    7
    Symptoms Secondary to Hyperglycemia in a Type I Diabetic Patient




    polyuria



    polydipsia



    polyphagia



    A, B & C



    none of the above
    8
    Cause(s) of metabolic effecct(s) associated with Type I diabetes:




    relative or significant glucagon excess



    an increase in glucagon/insulin ratio



    excessive insulin concentration



    A & B



    A, B & C
    9
    IDDM: typical age of onset




    less than 40 years of age



    greater than 40 years of age
    10
    Acute complication: NIDDM




    ketoacidosis



    hyperosmolar coma
    11
    Plasma insulin concentration: NIDDM




    low to absent



    normal to high
    12
    IDDM: response to sulfonylurea drugs:




    unresponsive



    responsive
    13
    Characteristic(s)of Type II diabetes:




    Group of milder forms of diabetes



    Occurs mainly in children



    Obesity: common risk factor



    A & C



    A, B & C
    14
    Clinical presentation: NIDDM




    usually developed ketoacidosis



    exhibits volume excess



    CNS symptoms



    exhibits hypo-osmolality
    15
    Hyperosmolar, nonketotic coma:




    caused by sustained hyperglycemia diuresis when patients cannot drink enough water to keep up with urinary fluid loss



    complete manifestation occurs when volume depletion decreases urine output



    both



    neither
    16
    Treatment of hyperosmolar coma states




    large amounts of IV fluids



    insulin



    potassium salts



    sodium bicarbonate



    all the above
    17
    Type II diabetes treatment --




    weight reduction



    diet



    insulin



    sulfonylurea drugs



    all the both
    18
    Clinical use for short-acting insulin




    IV treatment for diabetic ketoacidosis



    management of rapidly changing insulin requirements



    both



    neither
    19
    Tight glycemic control recommended:




    for patients with advance renal disease



    elderly



    children under the age of seven years



    none of the above
    20
    Most common complication of insulin treatment




    excessive appetite



    tachycardia, palpitations -- sympathetic overactivity



    hypoglycemia

    Gastrointestinal Drugs: Exam 2
    This is a self-grading exam. Answers are entered by clicking the button corresponding to your selection. The examination is scored by clicking 'Grade Test' at the bottom of the form. Correct answers are found through hyperlinks at the bottom of the page.


    أعلى النموذج

    Question # 1 (Multiple Choice) More likely to affect the cytochrome P450 drug metabolizing system:
    A) ranitidine (Zantac)
    B) cimetidine (Tagamet)

    Question # 2 (Multiple Choice) Only class of antiulcer drugs that can eradicate Helicobacter pylori and cure associated gastritis:
    A) sucralfate (Carafate)
    B) colloidal bismuth
    C) H2 blockers
    D) Anticholinergic agents

    Question # 3 (Multiple Choice) Antacid: melt-alkali syndrome:
    A) aluminum hydroxide
    B) magnesium hydroxide
    C) calcium carbonate
    D) sodium bicarbonate

    Question # 4 (True/False) Reduces basal unstimulated gastric acid secretion; enhanced mucosal resistance to injury-- prostaglandins (PGE1/PGE2)
    A) true
    B) false

    Question # 5 (Multiple Choice) Antacid: effective, but associated with systemic alkalosis
    A) calcium carbonate
    B) sodium bicarbonate
    C) magnesium hydroxide
    D) aluminum hydroxide

    Question # 6 (Multiple Choice) Antacid: most likely to cause systemic phosphate depletion:
    A) sodium bicarbonate
    B) calcium carbonate
    C) magnesium hydroxide
    D) aluminum hydroxide

    Question # 7 (Multiple Choice) Monotherapy effectiveness in eradication of H. pylori-- bismuth compounds
    A) 5%
    B) 20%
    C) 50%
    D) 90%

    Question # 8 (Multiple Answer) Omeprazole (Prilosec) and lansoprazole approved for clinical treatment of:
    A) duodenal ulcer
    B) erosive gastritis
    C) Zollinger-Ellison syndrome and other gastric acid hypersecretory states

    Question # 9 (Multiple Choice) Side effect profile-- antiulcer medication: urinary retention, blurred vision, xerostromia,:
    A) ranitidine (Zantac)
    B) atropine
    C) nifedipine (Procardia, Adalat)
    D) sucralfate (Carafate)

    Question # 10 (Multiple Answer) Examplesof H2 (histamine receptor Type II) antagonists:
    A) cimetidine (Tagamet)
    B) ranitidine (Zantac)
    C) nizatidine (Axid)
    D) famotidine (Pepcid)
    E) terfenadine

    Question # 11 (Multiple Choice) Mechanism of action: cytoprotection, binds to the ulcer base, antibacterial effect:
    A) metronidazole (Flagyl)
    B) tetracycline (Achromycin)
    C) bismuth compounds
    D) ranitidine (Zantac)
    E) omeprazole (Prilosec)

    Question # 12 (Multiple Answer) Drug(s) used iin eradication of Helicobacter pylori infection:
    A) bismuth compounds
    B) metronidazole (Flagyl)
    C) clarithromycin (Biaxin)
    D) omeprazole (Prilosec)
    E) amoxicillin (Amoxil Polymox)

    Question # 13 (Multiple Choice) Most widely used antacid in treating ulcer disease:
    A) sodium bicarbonate
    B) calcium carbonate
    C) magnesium hydroxide
    D) aluminum hydroxide
    E) combination of aluminum hydroxide and magnesium hydroxide

    Question # 14 (Multiple Choice) Treatment of gastric a disease: atropine vs.H2-receptor blockers -- atropine is:
    A) more effective than H2 receptor blockers
    B) less effective than H2 receptor blockers
    C) equally effective

    Question # 15 (Multiple Choice) Drawbacks of "triple therapy" {bismuth compounds + metronidazole (Flagyl) + tetracycline (Achromycin)}in treating peptic ulcer disease:
    A) patient compliance (2 week treatment = 200 tablets)
    B) side effects
    C) both
    D) neither

    Question # 16 (Multiple Choice) Antacid: constipation
    A) aluminum hydroxide
    B) magnesium hydroxide

    Question # 17 (Multiple Choice) Most successful protocol for eradication of H. pylori/treatment of peptic ulcer disease:
    A) bismuth monotherapy
    B) therapy using bismuth compounds, metronidazole (Flagyl), and amoxicillin (Amoxil Polymox) in combination -triple therapy
    C) bismuth compounds and amoxicillin (Amoxil Polymox)
    D) all of the above equally effective

    Question # 18 (Multiple Choice) Antacid: loose stools
    A) aluminum hydroxide
    B) magnesium hydroxide
    C) both
    D) neither

    Question # 19 (Multiple Choice) Eradication of H. pylori effectiveness for bismuth compounds when using combination with antibiotics:
    A) 5%
    B) 20%
    C) 50%
    D) 80%
    E) 95%
    أسفل النموذج

    Gastrointestinal Drugs Practice Exam #3

    This is a self-grading exam. Answers are entered by clicking the button corresponding to your selection. The examination is scored by clicking 'Grade Test' at the bottom of the form. Correct answers are found through hyperlinks at the bottom of the page.


    أعلى النموذج

    Question # 1 (Multiple Answer) In anesthesiology: high-risk patients for aspiration pneumonitis:
    A) patients with hiatus hernia
    B) patients with esophageal reflux
    C) patients with acute pain, "full stomach" -- emergency surgery

    Question # 2 (Multiple Choice) Aspiration pneumonia less likely when:
    A) metoclopramide (Reglan) is used alone
    B) metoclopramide (Reglan) is combined with ranitidine (Zantac)

    Question # 3 (Multiple Answer) Properties of metoclopramide (Reglan):
    A) decreases upper gastrointestinal motility
    B) decreases gastroesophageal sphincter tone
    C) relaxes the pylorus
    D) relaxes the duodenum

    Question # 4 (True/False) Pre-treatment with metoclopramide (Reglan) guarantees complete gastric emptying:
    A) true
    B) false

    Question # 5 (Multiple Choice) Greatest increase in gastric fluid volume which may be associated with antacid administration:
    A) single dose antacid
    B) multiple antacid dosing
    C) repeated dosing with concurrent opioid administration (e.g. during labor)

    Question # 6 (Multiple Choice) Aspiration of gastric fluid containing particulate antacids may have this/these consequences:
    A) pulmonary edema
    B) arterial hypoxemia
    C) both
    D) neither

    Question # 7 (True/False) Use of gastrokinetic drugs diminishes the need for correct, diligent anesthetic techniques to protect the airway during anesthesia:
    A) true
    B) false

    Question # 8 (True/False) Metoclopramide (Reglan): may not be effective of increasing gastric emptying following sodium citrate administration:
    A) true
    B) false

    Question # 9 (Multiple Choice) Omeprazole (Prilosec) and gastric acid suppression
    A) effective if given by IV 30 minutes prior to induction
    B) duration of action: about one day
    C) both
    D) neither

    Question # 10 (Multiple Choice) Effect on antacids on gastric fluid volume:
    A) increases
    B) decreases
    C) no effect

    Question # 11 (True/False) Pulmonary aspiration gastric content -- rare in elective surgery:
    A) true
    B) false

    Question # 12 (Multiple Choice) Concerning nonparticulate antacids and their use in preoperative medication:
    A) may themselves produce pulmonary damage if aspiration gastric fluid containing this type of an acid occurs
    B) more effective than colloidal antacids suspensionsin increasing gastric acid pH
    C) both
    D) neither

    Question # 13 (Multiple Choice) Ondansetron (Zofran) probably mediates its antiemetic effects by interacting with this receptor system:
    A) muscarinic, cholinergic
    B) nicotinic, cholinergic
    C) dopaminergic
    D) serotonergic
    E) GABA

    Question # 14 (True/False) In adults: relatively high risk of pulmonary complications if aspiration volume is greater than 25 ml and pH < 2.5:
    A) true
    B) false

    Question # 15 (Multiple Answer) Physiological effects of metoclopramide (Reglan):
    A) stimulates upper gastrointestinal motility
    B) increases gastroesophageal sphincter tone
    C) increases gastric fluid pH
    D) increases gastric acid secretion

    Question # 16 (Multiple Choice) Drugs that may offset metoclopramide (Reglan) effect on the upper GI tract:
    A) opioids
    B) concurrent atropine administration
    C) both
    D) neither

    Question # 17 (Multiple Choice) Greater "lag time" in increasing gastrointestinal pH:
    A) antacids
    B) H2 blockers
    C) both about the same lifetime

    Question # 18 (Multiple Choice) Appropriate for preoperative antiemetic use:
    A) droperidol (Inapsine)
    B) metoclopramide (Reglan)
    C) both
    D) neither

    Question # 19 (Multiple Answer) Antiemetic drugs particularly useful for patients undergoing:
    A) opthalmological surgery
    B) laproscopic surgery
    C) gynecologic procedures


    1
    This antihypertensive drug is contraindicated in patients with bilateral renal artery stenosis:




    clonidine (Catapres)



    terazosin (Hytrin)



    nifedipine (Procardia, Adalat)



    captopril (Capoten)



    metoprolol (Lopressor)
    2
    Antihypertensive drug typically used in patients with severe hypertension and renal insufficiency; this agent produces significant fluid retention and hypertrichosis.




    hydralazine (Apresoline)



    methyldopa (Aldomet)



    minoxidil (Loniten)



    nitroprusside sodium (Nipride)



    diltiazem (Cardiazem)
    3
    The drug of choice in management of hypertensive crisis when continuously variable IV infusion is required.




    lisinopril (Prinvivil, Zestril)



    diazoxide (Hyperstat)



    nifedipine (Procardia, Adalat)



    nitroprusside sodium (Nipride)



    metoprolol (Lopressor)
    4
    A drug-induced lupus-like syndrome is associated with this antihypertensive drug




    minoxidil (Loniten)



    hydralazine (Apresoline)



    diazoxide (Hyperstat)



    nitroprusside sodium (Nipride)



    acebutolol (Sectral)
    5
    Tachycardia due to hydralazine administration would be blocked by:




    bumetanide (Bumex)



    fosinopril (Monopril)



    mecamylamine (Inversine)



    nifedipine (Procardia, Adalat)



    minoxidil (Loniten)
    6
    A diabetic patient is prescribed a new medication to control mild hypertension. The patient then becomes less aware of hypoglycemic symptoms. The antihypertensive drug was most probably:




    phentolamine (Regitine)



    atenolol (Tenormin)



    enalapril (Vasotec) and



    hydralazine (Apresoline)



    prazosin (Minipress)
    7
    Which drug would be least likely used in the initial pharmacological treatment of mild hypertension?




    amlodipine (Norvasc)



    metoprolol (Lopressor)



    enalapril (Vasotec)



    minoxidil (Loniten)



    chlorothiazide (Diuril)
    8
    Which antihypertensive drug would be contraindicated if the patient were taking tranylcypromine (Parnate)?




    hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ, Esidrix, HydroDIURIL)



    diltiazem (Cardiazem)



    guanethidine (Ismelin)



    lisinopril (Prinvivil, Zestril)



    labetalol (Trandate, Normodyne)
    9
    Which drug would block the antihypertensive efficacy of guanadrel (Hylorel)?




    buspirone (BuSpar)



    lorazepam (Ativan)



    imipramine (Tofranil)



    propranolol (Inderal)



    chlorothiazide (Diuril)
    10
    Lisinopril belongs to which class of antihypertensive drugs?




    centrally-acting sympatholytic



    beta-adrenoceptor antagonist



    angiotensin II receptor antagonist



    beta-adrenoceptor agonist



    angiotensin II converting enzyme inhibitor
    11
    Most likely to be used for initial drug management of moderate hypertension




    guanethidine (Ismelin)



    nitroprusside sodium (Nipride)



    minoxidil (Loniten)



    nifedipine (Procardia, Adalat)



    hydralazine (Apresoline)
    12
    Antihypertensive agents -- side effect profile includes impaired glucose tolerance, hypokalemia, increased serum lipids and increased renin secretion:




    methyldopa (Aldomet)



    chlorothiazide (Diuril)



    nifedipine (Procardia, Adalat)



    nitroprusside sodium (Nipride)



    diazoxide (Hyperstat)
    13
    Effects of hydralazine (Apresoline):




    increased renin levels



    lupus-like syndrome



    reflex bradycardia



    hypertensive response if patient ingests food rich in tyramine



    all of the above
    14
    Mechanisms by which blood-pressure may be reduced:




    reduced cardiac output



    increased vagus nerve activity



    decreased central sympathetic outflow



    reduced angiotensin II levels



    all the above
    15
    Orthostatic hypotension:




    minoxidil (Loniten)



    imipramine (Tofranil)



    hydralazine (Apresoline)



    methyldopa (Aldomet)



    all of the above
    16
    Antihypertensive drug least likely to cause orthostatic hypotension:




    minoxidil (Loniten)



    enalapril (Vasotec)



    guanethidine (Ismelin)



    hydralazine (Apresoline)



    terazosin (Hytrin)
    17
    Vascular smooth muscle relaxation by means of calcium channel blockade:




    hydralazine (Apresoline)



    nitroprusside sodium (Nipride)



    nifedipine (Procardia, Adalat)



    captopril (Capoten)



    phentolamine (Regitine)
    18
    Protects against tachycardia caused by minoxidil (Loniten) administration:




    prazosin (Minipress)



    diltiazem (Cardiazem)



    metoprolol (Lopressor)



    losartin (Cozaar)



    methyldopa (Aldomet)
    19
    Mechanism of antihypertensive action:inhibition of peptidyl dipeptidase




    metoprolol (Lopressor)



    verapamil (Isoptin, Calan)



    lisinopril (Prinvivil, Zestril)



    diazoxide (Hyperstat)
    20
    Antihypertensive agent that can produce a positive Coombs' test




    clonidine (Catapres)



    guanabenz (Wytensin)



    guanfacine (Tenex)



    methyldopa (Aldomet)



    all the above


  2. #2
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    افتراضي

    السلام عليكم ورحمة الله وبركاته ،،

    اهلا بك اخي محاجنه ،،

    ماشاء الله موضوع قيم للكثير من الصيادلة وطلاب الصيدلة ،،

    احييك كثيراً على نشاطك ،،

    استمر ونحن في انتظار ما تقدمه لنا دائماً

    تحياتي لك

  3. #3
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    شكراً لك جزيل الشكر محاجنه


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